----- Original Message -----
From: "Dave Bradley" <[log in to unmask]>
> Um. I'm confused. Since EQ is accomplished by the actual shifting of
> phase, how could the phase shift be quite low and have it still be an
> effective EQ?
As I understand it, equalization (or any variance in signal levels produced
selective frequency filtering) does not specifically and intentionally
accomplish its goal via phase shifting...rather, the fact that this
is accomplished through reactive elements in the circuitry (inductance and
capacitance) inevitably produces phase shift as a side effect.
This brings up an interesting point, which would necessitate more knowledge
theory than I posess. If equalization is accomplished through digital
of the produced wave rather than through the introduction of reactive
is there any "phase shift" of the resulting digital signal?
Steven C. Barr