Clarity requested from Anila Angjeli.
Anila Angjeli of the Bibliothèque nationale de France seems to imply that
"... Norman" is a single language.
I think that Milicent Wewerka is correct (see below), and that Norman (in
France) and Anglo-Norman (outside France) are two separate languages.
After all, the separation occurred nearly 1000 years ago ...
John Clews
Anila Angjeli wrote:
> Ok for a separate entry in ISO 639-2.
> As to the name both appelations "Anglo-Norman" (in French "Anglo-normand")
> and French-Norman (in French "Franco-normand") may be encountered in the
> documents. Depending on the context, "Norman" is used in some cases to
> designate only the Norman dialect used in Normandy and in other cases it
> encompasses the dialects spoken in the isles as well. So "French-Norman"
> may be a good compromise, provided that the other forms be added as
> variants to the name.
>
> Regards
> Anila Angjeli
> Bibliothèque nationale de France
Milicent K Wewerka wrote:
27/09/2004 15:29:04
> I think it would be useful to have a separate entry in ISO 639-2 for
> Norman French. I don't think it should be called "Anglo-Norman" since
> that term would exclude varieties still used in Normandy, although
> perhaps that would be valid as an additional name.
>
> Milicent Wewerka
> Library of Congress
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